Thanks, Bradley. Yes, that is in the ballpark, although there is more to it. The Enlightenment Gap features fairly prominently in my in-progress book, The Problem of Psychology and Its Solution. Here is a blog that defines what I mean by it. There are two facets of the Enlightenment Gap that are important to keep in mind. One is the matter versus mind relation and the second is the scientific knowledge versus society/social knowledge distinction. The former is well-known as the mind/body problem and the hard problem of consciousness and the latter is the tension between modernist and postmodernist sensibilities.  

 

As the Enlightenment blog notes, the problem of psychology is the direct downstream consequence of the Enlightenment Gap. Indeed, in retrospect, we can note how could it be otherwise?

 

Also, the problem of psychology identifies where the modernist empirical natural scientific language game runs aground. That is, it does fine with “STEM” fields (i.e., physics, chemistry, and biology-into-neuroscience, as well as math that grounds their quantitative logic and engineering). However, the STEM “hard sciences” (meaning that there is a body of consensual knowledge) go “soft” in the move from neuroscience to psychology. Why? The Enlightenment Gap.  

 

The argument is the UTOK provides us a way to solve the problem of psychology (the most vexing aspect being the problem of subject matter or the “behavior-mind-mind-mind” problem) and generate a larger theory of MENS Knowledge that we can then frame with the proper metamodern Wisdom-Orientation. This sets the stage for a potential shift into Enlightenment 2.0 in the 21st Century and the move from the current Age of Confusion into the Age of Clarity.  

 

Best,

Gregg

 

From: tree of knowledge system discussion <[log in to unmask]> On Behalf Of Bradley H. Werrell, D.O.
Sent: Tuesday, December 15, 2020 11:13 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: TOK Question re "Enlightenment Gap"

 

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Hello all.

 

I am seeking some clarification regarding the significance of "The Enlightenment Gap," as popularized on this channel.

 

My understanding of the term:

 

While the objective was well apprehended with the advent of the scientific method, and material objectivity was mastered by the project, it is the failure of this method to account for, include, or have significant resolution and inclusion of the subjective that is the nature of this "Gap."

 

Is that approximately correct?

 

Thank you for illuminating my little corner with your clarification(s)!

 

 

Bradley

 

 

 

Bradley H. Werrell, D.O. - This email is private and copyrighted by the author.

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