Hello all.

I am seeking some clarification regarding the significance of "The Enlightenment Gap," as popularized on this channel.

My understanding of the term:

While the objective was well apprehended with the advent of the scientific method, and material objectivity was mastered by the project, it is the failure of this method to account for, include, or have significant resolution and inclusion of the subjective that is the nature of this "Gap."

Is that approximately correct?

Thank you for illuminating my little corner with your clarification(s)!

Bradley